A wise counting Moral stories

A Wise Counting.

Emperor Akbar was in the habit of putting riddles and puzzles to his courtiers. He often asked questions which were strange and witty. It took much wisdom to answer these questions.



Once he asked a very strange question. The courtiers were dumb folded by his question.



Akbar glanced at his courtiers. As he looked, one by one the heads began to hang low in search of an answer. It was at this moment that Birbal entered the courtyard. Birbal who knew the nature of the emperor quickly grasped the situation and asked, "May I know the question so that I can try for an answer".



Akbar said, "How many crows are there in this city?"



Without even a moment's thought, Birbal replied "There are fifty thousand five hundred and eighty nine crows, my lord".



"How can you be so sure?" asked Akbar.



Birbal said, "Make you men count, My lord. If you find more crows it means some have come to visit their relatives here. If you find less number of crows it means some have gone to visit their relatives elsewhere".



Akbar was pleased very much by Birbal's wit.

FSc ICS Notes Entry Test Exam Solution MCAT ECAT Physics First Year Chapter 11 Heat and Thermodynamics

Both Bold and Underlined option is correct

1. The centigrade and Fahrenheit scales will have the same reading when the temperature is:

• 70
• -80
• -40
• 120

2. The Fahrenheit and kelvin scale will have the same reading when the temperature is:

• 370
• 574.25
• 414.5
• 388

3. Fahrenheit scale was originally used in:

• Meteorology
• Clinical thermometer
• Clinical thermometer and meteorology
• None of these

4. A gas which strictly obeys the gas laws under all conditions of temperature and pressure is called:

• Real gas
• Ideal gas
• Inert gas
• None of these

5. The motion of molecules in gases is:

• Orderly
• Random
• Circular
• All of these

6. At constant temperature, if the density of the gas is increased, its pressure will:

• Decrease
• Increase
• Remains unchanged
• None of these

7. If a molecule will momentum mv strikes a wall and rebound then the change in momentum will be:

• -2mv
• Zero
• 2mv
• mv

8. Given that P=10(4) N/m2, area of the piston = 0.1 m(2) and distance moved by the piston = 10(-1) cm, then the work done by the gas is:

• 1J
• 10(5)J
• 10(4)J
• 10J

9. If Cv denotes molar specific heat at constant volume and ?T is the change in the temperature, then Cv∆T gives:

• Volume
• Pressure
• Energy
• Entropy

10. If temperature of the sink is decreased, efficiency of a Carnot engine:

• Remains constant
• Decreases
• Increases
• None of these

11. One degree of thermodynamic scale is equal to ________ of the temperature triple point of water.

• 1/273 th
• 1/100 th
• 1/273.16 th
• 1/32 th

12. The unknown temperature T on thermodynamic scale in kelvin is given by the formula:

• T = 273.16Q/Q3
• T = 32Q/Q3
• T = 100Q/Q3
• T = 273Q/Q3

13. A certain engine converts 20% of available heat into work. Then its efficiency will be:

• 20%
• 80%
• 50%
• None of these

14. Number of spark plugs needed in diesel engine is:

• Four
• Five
• Six
• None of these

15. Most motorbikes have ________ cylinder/s engine but cars usually have cylinders on the same crankshaft.

• Four, six
• One, four
• Two, five
• None of these

16. A constant volume gas thermometer works on:

• Archimedes principle
• Pascal's law
• Boyle's law
• Charles law

17. The ratio of coefficients of cubical expansion and linear expansion is:

• 1:1
• 3:1
• 2:1
• None of these

18. When a copper ball is heated, the largest percentage in crease will occur in its:

• Diameter
• Area
• Volume
• Density

19. Sea animals are safe in winter in cold countries because of:

• Their body conditions
• High specific heat of water
• Low conductivity of water
• Anomalous expansion of water

20. The volume expansion coefficient is:

• Equal to temperature
• Proportional to square root of temperature
• Inversely proportional to square root of temperature
• Inversely proportional to temperature

21. Heat is transferred most rapidly by the process of:

• Conduction
• Convection
• Radiation
• Combustion

22. When water is heated from 0 degree to 10 degree Celsius, its volume:

• Increases
• Decreases
• Does not change
• Data is insufficient

23. First law of thermodynamic concerns conservation of:

• Heat
• Work
• Momentum
• Energy

24. When 110J of heat is added to a gaseous system, internal energy increases by 40J; the amount of work done is:

• 150J
• 70J
• 110J
• 40J

25. Molar specific heat at constant volume Cv for a mono-atomic gas is:

• 3/2 R
• 5/2 R
• 6/2 R
• 4/2 R

26. A sink, that is a system where heat is rejected, is essential for the conservation of heat into work. From which law the above inference follows?

• Zeroth
• First
• Second
• Third

27. The first operation involved in a Carnot cycle is:

• Isothermal expansion
• Adiabatic expansion
• Isothermal compression
• Adiabatic compression

28. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77 degree Celsius is to have a 30% efficiency. It must take heat at:

• 127 degree Celsius
• 227 degree Celsius
• 327 degree Celsius
• 673 degree Celsius

29. The work done in an adiabatic change in a particular gas depends upon only:

• Change in volume
• Change in pressure
• Change in temperature
• None of these

30. The gas law Constant = PV/T is true for:

• Isothermal changes only
• Adiabatic changes only
• Both isothermal and adiabatic changes
• Neither for isothermal nor for adiabatic changes

31. The physical quantity which described the level of thermal energy in a body is:

• Temperature
• Heat energy
• Pressure
• Volume

32. The pressure exerted by the gas is directly proportional to:

• Velocity of the molecule
• Density of the gas
• Square of the density
• Square root of the density

33. For an ideal gas system, the internal energy is directly proportional to:

• Pressure
• Volume
• Density
• Temperature

34. The change in internal energy of the system is positive, when the temperature of the system:

• Increases
• Decreases
• Remains constant
• None of the above

35. Water boils at 100 degree Celsius, the corresponding temperature at Fahrenheit scale is:

• 180 Fahrenheit
• 200 Fahrenheit
• 212 Fahrenheit
• 273 Fahrenheit

36. A Celsius degree is larger than a Fahrenheit degree by:

• 5/9
• 9/5
• 9/10
• 9/8

37. Absolute zero is considered as that temperature at which:

• All liquids become gases
• All gases become liquids
• Water freezes
• All gases partially liquefied

38. At constant volume, the graph between P and T is:

• Hyperbola
• Parabola
• Straight line
• Ellipse

39. At constant temperature, if the pressure of the given mass of the gas is doubled, then the density of the gas becomes:

• Double
• 1/4 of the original value
• 1/2 of the original value
• Remains constant

40. An inflated tire suddenly bursts. As a result of this, the temperature of air:

• Increases
• Decreases
• May increase or decrease
• Remains constant

41. When the gas expands isothermally, the work is:

• Done on the gas
• Done by the gas
• Zero
• Negative

42. The SI unit of molar specific heat is:

• Jmol/K
• J/molK
• JK/mol
• J/mol

43. The coefficient of linear expansion of platinum is 9*10(-6) per Coulomb. Its coefficient of volume expansion is:

• 3*10(-6) per Coulomb
• 9*10(-6) per Coulomb
• 18*10(-6) per Coulomb
• 27*10(-6) per Coulomb

44. The SI unit of entropy is:

• J/K
• J/s
• Js/K
• J/K(2)

45. The natural process tends to proceed towards a state of greater:

• Order
• Disorder
• Both order and disorder
• Neither order nor disorder

46. Which of the following is not the function of state?

• Internal energy
• Entropy
• Enthalpy
• Mass

47. Entropy of universe during any natural process:

• Increases
• Increases or remains constant
• Decreases
• Decreases or remains constant

48. When a sphere is heated, then the greatest increase is in its:

• Radius
• Circumference
• Surface area
• Volume

49. Net change in entropy of a system in a Carnot's cycle is:

• Positive
• Negative
• Maximum
• Zero

50. Area under the p-v graph of Carnot engine represents the:

• Heat absorbed
• Heat rejected
• Total work done
• All of the above

51. Temperature of gas is a measure of:

• the average translational kinetic energy of the gas molecule
• the average potential energy of the gas molecules
• the average distance of the gas molecules
• the size of the gas molecules

52. A thermometric liquid which can be used to measure temperature between -40 degree Celsius to 40 degree Celsius is:

• Water
• Alcohol
• Mercury
• Phenol

53. The temperature at which the reading of a Fahrenheit thermometer will be double that of Centigrade thermometer is:

• 160 degree Celsius
• 180 degree Celsius
• 32 degree Celsius
• 100 degree Celsius

54. For measuring temperature near absolute zero, the thermometer used is:

• Thermoelectric thermometer
• Radiation thermometer
• Magnetic thermometer
• Resistance thermometer

55. The absolute zero is the temperature at which:

• Water freezes
• All substances exist in solid state
• Molecular motion ceases
• None of the above

56. Absolute zero (0K) is that temperature at which:

• Matter ceases to exist
• Ice melts and water freezes
• Molecular motion ceases
• None of the above

57. The temperature on Celsius scale is 25 degree Celsius. What is the corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?

• 40 F
• 77 F
• 50 F
• 45 F

58. The root mean square speed of the molecules of different ideal gases, maintained at the same temperature are:

• Same
• Different
• Zero
• Infinity

59. 'P' is pressure and 'd' is the density of the gas at constant temperature, then:

• P ∝ 1/d
• P ∝ 1/d(2)
• P ∝ d
• P ∝ d(2)

60. The number of molecules per cc of a gas at S.T.P. is:

• 2.68*10(17)
• 2.68*10(19)
• 22400*6*10(23)
• 6*10(23)

61. In winter, the temperature of the inside wall of a room as compared to the temperature of air in the room is:

• Lower
• Higher
• Same
• May be lower or higher depending upon atmospheric pressure

62. Pressure of a gas can be written as:

• 1/3 ρV
• 1/3 V(2)
• 1/3 ρV(2)
• 1/3 ρ(2)V

63. One Kelvin is defined as:

• 1/100 of boiling point of water
• 1/273.16 of melting of ice
• 1/273.16 of boiling point of water
• 1/273.16 of temperature of triple point of water

64. The value of Boltzmann's constant is:

• 1.38*10(-23)J/K
• 1.38*10(23)J/K
• 1.38*10(-23)J/mole-K
• 1.38*10(-23)J/K mole-K

65. For a gas obeying Boyle's law if the pressure is doubled, the volume becomes:

• Double
• One half
• Three fold
• Remains the same

66. If coefficient of linear expansion of a solid is a, its coefficient of cubical expansion will be approximately:

• 2a
• 3a
• 2.5a
• 4a

67. The SI units of specific heat are:

• K cal / kg K
• Cal / gram C
• K cal / kg C
• J / kg K

68. In an adiabatic process:

• Q = ∆U + W
• Q = ∆U
• Q = W
• Q = 0

69. A system does 600 J of work and at the same time its internal energy increased by 320J. How much heat has  bee supplied?

• 280J
• 920J
• 600J
• 20J

70. No entropy change takes place in:

• Isothermal process
• Adiabatic process
• Isobaric process
• Isochoric process

FSc ICS MCAT ECAT Physics First Year Chapter 1 Measurements Multiple Choice Question(MCQ) Notes

Both Bold and Underlined option is correct

1. The branch of physics "wave mechanic"introduced by:

• Einstein
• Max Plank
• De-broglie
• Bohr

2. Physicists started believing that every thing about physics has been discovered by the end of:

• 20 th century
• 19 th century
• 15 th century
• None of these

3. Pascal is famous for his work:

• Hydrostatics
• Hydrodynamics
• Laws of gases
• Behaviour of elastic bodies

4. Systems international (SI) was established in:

• 1960
• 1967
• 1971
• 1930

5. The basic quantity among following is:

• Torque
• Force
• Mass
• Velocity

6. Which one of the scientist made some contribution to geometrical optics:

• Archimedes
• Pythagoras
• Euclid
• Plato

7. Which of the following is the derived quantity:

• Time
• Area
• Length
• Mass

8. Which of the following is set of supplementary units:

• Radian & kilogram
• Steradian & time
• Mole & radian
• Radian & steradian

9. The SI unit for measuring plane angle is:

• Radian
• Steradian
• Both first and second
• None of these

10. The present standard meter is defined as:

• The distance between  two points on an alloy bar
• The length of mean solar day
• The length equal to 1650763.73 wavelength of krypton 86-atom
• The distance travel by the light in vacuum during a time of 1/299792458 second

11. The system international (SI) built up from:

• Derived units
• Basic units
• Supplementary units
• All of these

12. One mile is equal to:

• 1.625 km
• 1.609 km
• 1.325 km
• 1.850 km

13. One inch is equal to:

• 1.32 cm
• 25.4 cm
• 2.10 cm
• 2.54 cm

14. One foot is equal to:

• 31.90 cm
• 30.84 cm
• 30.48 cm
• 84.30 cm

15. Number of nano second in a year is:

• 3.1536 * 10(7)
• 3.1536 * 10(9)
• 3.1536 * 10(16)
• None of these

16. One year is equal to:

• 3.2 * 10(7) sec
• 2.25 * 10(7) sec
• 3.35 * 10(7) sec
• All of these

17. Light year is the unit of:

• Light
• Time
• Velocity
• Distance

18. The unit of thermodynamic temperature is:

• K
• C
• F
• None of these

19. One atto is:

• 10(-20)
• 10(-16)
• 10(-14)
• 10(-18)

20. One femto is:

• 10(-16)
• 10(-12)
• 10(-15)
• 10(-9)

21. The number of significant figure in 8.80 * 10(6) kg is:

• 1
• 5
• 3
• 6

22. The number 64.350 is rounded off as:

• 64.35
• 64.46
• 64.36
• 64.4

23. In scientific notation, the number 0.01 may be written as:

• 10(-2)
• 10(-4)
• 10 * 10(-4)
• 1 * 10(-4)

24. If length = 0.233 m and width = 0.178 m, the most accurate area expressed space of significant figures is:

• 0.041 m(2)
• 0.0415 m(2)
• 0.041747 m(2)
• None of these

25. The number 0.0001 in scientific notation is:

• 1 * 10(4)
• 10(-3)
• 10 * 10(4)
• 10(-4)

26. One mega is equal to:

• 10(6)
• 10(-6)
• 10(3)
• 10(9)

27. The error in a certain measurement occurs due to:

• Negligence of a person
• Inappropriate technique
• Faulty apparatus
• All of the above

28. The uncertainty may occur due to:

• Limitation of an instrument
• Natural variance of the object
• Personal negligence
• All of the above

29. The least count of a unit meter rod is:

• 0.01 cm
• 0.01 mm
• Cannot be zero
• Can be zero

30. The number of base units in SI are:

• Four
• Five
• Six
• Seven

31. Deca, deci and mega, respectively mean:

• 10(1), 10(-1), 10(6)
• 10(6), 10(-1), 10(1)
• 10(6), 10(1), 10(-1)
• 10(1), 10(6), 10(-1)

32. 134.7 should be written in scientific notation as:

• 134.7
• 13.45 * 10(1)
• 1.347 * 10(2)
• 0.1347 * 10(3)

33. Pico, kilo and terra mean:

• 10(-12), 10(-3), 10(-18)
• 10(18), 10(3), 10(-12)
• 10(-12), 10(3), 10(12)
• 10(18), 10(-12), 10(3)

34. The average time the Earth takes to make exactly one rotation about its axis is defined as:

• A solar hour
• A solar day
• A light year
• A solar month

35. The distance x determined by the difference between two separate position measurements x1 = 10.5 +-(0.1) cm and x2 26.8 +-(0.1) cm. Then x will be recorded as:

• 16.3 cm
• 16.3 +-(0.1) cm
• 16.3 +-(0.2) cm
• 16.3 +-(0.01) cm

36. The length of a line was measured with a meter scale of least count = 1 mm by four students. The correct reading will be:

• 0.5426 m
• 0.542 m
• 0.54 m
• 0.5 m

37. Name the scientist who was awarded the Nobel Prize in physics in 1936 for the discovery of the positron:

• Chadwick
• Femi
• Anderson
• Einstein

38. The density of mercury is 13600 kg/m(3). Its value in CGS system will be:

• 13.6 g/cm(3)
• 1360 g/cm(3)
• 136 g/cm(3)
• 1.36 g/cm(3)

39. The unit of force and length are doubled, the unit of energy will be:

• 1/2 times
• 1/3 times
• 2 times
• 4 times

40. The dimensional formula [ML(0)T(-3)] is more closely associated with:

• Power
• Energy
• Intensity
• Velocity gradient

41. Which dimensions will be the same as that of time?

• LC
• R / L
• L / R
• C / L

42. Angular momentum has the same dimensions as:

• Plank's constant
• Universal gravitational constant
• Rydberg constant
• Boltzmann constant

43. Which of the two have same dimensions?

• Force and strain
• Force and stress
• Angular velocity and frequency
• Energy and strain

44. A student measured the diameter of a wire using a screw gauge with least count 0.001 cm and listed the measurements. The correct measurement is:

• 5.320 cm
• 5.3 cm
• 5.32 cm
• 5.3200 cm

45. Zero error belongs to the category of:

• Constant errors
• Personal errors
• Instrumental errors
• Accidental errors

46. Which one is the least sub-multiple?

• pico
• femto
• atto
• nano

47. In which system, the unit of force is a base unit:

• SI system
• CGS system
• British engineering system
• MKS system

48. Which of the following cannot be expressed as Nm(-2):

• Pressure
• Stress
• Surface tension
• Bulk modulus of elasticity

49. Which of the following units is used to measure the radius of nucleus?

• Micron
• Nanometer
• Angstrom
• Femtometer

50. Which of the following is not equal to watt?

• Joule / second
• Ampere * Volt
• Ampere(2) * ohm
• Ampere / volt

51. Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of any of the following:

• Length and mass
• Mass and time
• Length, mass and time
• In terms of none of these

52. erg/m can be the unit of the measure of:

• Force
• Momentum
• Power
• Acceleration

53. IF the radius of the Earth shrinks by 1.5% (mass remaining same) then the value of acceleration due to gravity changes by:

• 1%
• 2%
• 3%
• 4%

54. Which of the following readings taken by microscope of least count 0.001 cm is correct?

• 3.28
• 3.00
• 3.000
• 0.02345

55. Which of the following is not a base unit in SI system:

• Temperature
• Amount of substance
• Light intensity
• Area

56. The minimum number of physical quantities which define other physical quantities is SI system are:

• Two
• Three
• Five
• Seven

57. Which of the following is not a unit of time:

• Leap year
• Light year
• Lunar month
• Micro second

58. Three dimensional angel subtended at the center of the sphere by an area of its surface equal to the square of radius of the sphere is called:

• Radian
• Steradian
• Degree
• All of the above

59. The ratio of 1 nanometer to 1 attometer is equal to:

• 1 peta
• 1 tera
• 1 giga
• 1 mega

60. A precise measurement is the one which has:

• Less absolute uncertainty
• Less percentage uncertainty
• Large fractional uncertainty
• Large absolute uncertainty

61. The accuracy of measurement depends on:

• Absolute uncertainty
• Percentage uncertainty
• Quality of the instrument
• Calibration of the scale

62. Number of significant figure with increasing degree of approximation:

• Decreases
• Increases
• Remains unchanged
• None of the above

63. Solid angle subtended at the center by a sphere is:

• 2 π
• 4 π
• 6 π
• 8 π

64. A second pendulum strikes in a day:

• 3600 times
• 86400 times
• 43200 times
• 0.003 sec

65. The density of wood is 0.5g/cm(3) in CGS system of units. The corresponding value in SI units is:

• 500 kg/m(3)
• 5 kg/m(3)
• 0.5 kg/m(3)
• 5000 kg/m(3)

66. Physical quantity is/are:

• Time
• Density
• Temperature
• All

67. The error is constant for _______ error.

• Random
• Systematic
• Both first and second
• All

68. For 2450 number of significant digits:

• 4
• 3
• 2
• 1

69. Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force?

• Energy / Distance
• Energy * Distance
• Energy / Time
• Momentum * Distance

70. What is the ratio 1 micrometer / 1 Giga meter

• 10(-3)
• 10(-6)
• 10(-12)
• 10(-15)

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Fsc part 2 chemistry chapter 1

CHAPTER # 1
Periodic Classification of Elements & Periodicity
1. Which of the following pairs are chemically
dissimilar?
(A) Na and K (B) Ba and Sr
(C) Zr and Hf (D) Ca and Zn.
2. The total number of inner transition elements
is
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 28 (C) 30
3. The alkali metal which is liquid at 15oC is
(A) K (B) Cs
(C) Na (D) None
4. Which of the following ion will form most water
soluble hydroxide?
(A) K+ (B) Ni2+
(B) Zn2+ (C) Al3+
5. Which of the following has greatest tendency to lose electron?
(A) F (B) Fr
(B) S (C) Be.
6. The oxide of which of the following elements will be acidic in character
(A) Mg (B) Rb
(C) Li (C) CI
7. Which of the following is isoelectronic with carbon atom?
(A) Na+ (B) Al3+
(C) O2- (D) N+
D
8. Which of the following ions are paramagnetic in character?
(A) Zn2+ (B) Cu+
(C) Ni2+ (D) Ag+
9. Ca2+ ion is isoelectronic with
(A) Mg2+ (B) Na+
(C) Ar (D) Kr
10. Gradual addition of electronic shells in the noble gases causes a decrease in their
(A) Ionization energy (B) atomic radius
(C) Boiling point (D) density.

11. Which of the following has highest first ionization potential?
(A) Carbon (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (C) Boron.
12. Which of the following has the smallest size?
(A) Na+ (B) Mg2+
(C) Al3+ (D) CI
13. Which of the following element has the maximum electron affinity?
(A) F (B) S
(C) I (D) CI.
14. Which of the following is isoelectronic as well as has the same structure as that of N2O ?
(A) N3H (B) H2O
(B) NO2 (C) CO2
15. The atomic radius increases as we move down a group because
(A) Effective nuclear charge increases
(B) Atomic mass increases
(C) Additive electrons are accommodated in
new electron level
(D) Atomic number increase.
16. Which one of the following is an incorrect
statement?
(A) The ionization potential of nitrogen is
greater than that of chlorine
(B) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater
than that of chlorine
(C) The ionization potential of beryllium is
greater than that of boron
(D) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater
than that of chlorine.
17. Electron affinity depends on
(A) Atomic size
(B) Nuclear charge
(C) Atomic number
(D) Atomic size and nuclear charge both.
18. Two elements whose eletronegativities are 1.2 and 3.0, the bond formed between them would
be
(A) Ionic (B) covalent
(C) Coordinate (C) metallic.


19. Ionic radii are
(A) Directly proportional to square of effective
nuclear charges
(B) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear
charge
(C) Inversely proportional to square of
effective nuclear charge
(D) Directly proportional to effective nuclear
charge.
20. Which of the following oxides is atmospheric in
character?
(A) CaO (B) CO2
(C) SiO2 (D) SnO2
21. Mark the correct statement:
(A) Na+ is smaller than Na atom
(B) Na+ is larger than Na atom
(C) CI- is smaller than CI atom
(D) CI- and CI are equal in size
22. Who introduced the zero groups?
(A) Lothar Meyer (B) Lockery
(C) Mendleev (D) Ramsay
23. Element, of group I-B are called
(A) Representative elements
(B) Transition elements
(C) Rare earth
(D) Coinage metals
24. The element with Z = 24 is placed in the period
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
25. Which is the part of metalloids?
(A) NA and K (B) F and CI
(C) None of these (D) Cu and Au
26. Which one of the following has the maximum
electron affinity?
(A) I (B) Br
(C) CI (D) F

Chemistry part 2 chap 1 mcqs....file 2
26. Which one of the following has the maximum
electron affinity?
(A) I (B) Br
(C) CI (D) F
27. On electrolysis of NaH, hydrogen is liberated
(A) At anode (B) in the electrolyte
(C) At cathode (D) none of them
28. Elements with greater number of electrons
have _________values of ionization energy.
a) Only one b) More than one
c) Zero d) Infinite
29. Which of the following possess maximum
hydration power?
a) Na+ b) K+
c) Mg+2 d) Ca+2
30. Higher value of electron affinity means_________
Atom will lose electron easily
Atom will gain electron easily
Atom may form di-positive ion
The reason is unknown
31. Melting points of VII-A group ___________ down the group
a. Increase b Decrease
c. Remain constant d. No regular trend
32. Oxidation state of an atom represents______
No. of electrons gained
No. of electrons lost
No. of electrons gained or lost
d. None of above correctly represent it
33. Mendeleevs periodic table was based on
a) Atomic number b) Atomic mass
c) Atomic volume d) Electronic configuration
34. Elements present in a same group have the same
a) Atomic number
b) Molecular weight
c) Chemical properties
d) Electronic configuration
35. s and p block elements are also called
Transition elements
Inert elements
Typical elements
Rare earth elements
36. What is the symbol of the element with only three electrons and three protons?
a) Li b) C
c) Ag d) Cu
37. Elements with seven electrons in their valence shell are known as
a) Inert b) Lanthanides
c) Halogens d) Alkali metals
38. Which of the following pairs of elements are chemically most similar?
a) Na and Al b) Cu and Cu
c) S and F d) Sc and Zn
39. A student of chemistry will identify positively the following symbols as sodium
a) b)
c) d)
40. In the periodic table each period begins with a metal, which is
Most electronegative
Most electropositive
Less electropositive
Less electronegative
41. Which one of the following is not a coinage metal?
a) Au b) Cu
c) Ag d) Pd
42. Which is the most metallic element of 2nd period?
a) Lithium b) Beryllium
c) Boron d) Carbon
43. The outer most orbital involved in chemical bonding is called
a) Molecular orbital b) Complete orbital
c) Valence orbital d) Free orbital
44. Elements, which form basic oxides are
a) Electropositive b) Electronegative
c) Inert d) None of these
45. Which of the following has the most basic character?
a) Na2O b) MgO
c) Al2O3 d) P2O3
46. Which of the following is smallest in size?
a) K+1 b) O-2
c) F-1 d) Na+
47. Ionization energy is lowest for
a) Inert gases b) Halogens
c) Alkali metals d) Alkaline earth metals
48. An isotope of hydrogen is
a) Neptunium b) Plutonium
c) Thorium d) Tritium
49. With respect to chlorine, hydrogen will be
a) Electropositive b) Electronegative
c) Neutral d) None of these
50. Which of the following has the highest electron affinity?
a) 1S2 2S2 2P3 b) 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S1
c) 1S2 2S2 2P5 d) 1S2 2S2 2P5
51. Excluding hydrogen and helium, the smallest elements in the periodic table is
a) Lithium b) Fluorine
c) Cesium d) Iodine
52. Which halogen has the smallest electron affinity?
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
53. The element with atomic number 7 is likely to have same properties to the element whose atomic number is
a) 11 b) 2
c) 15 d) F
54. Which of the following will have largest size?
a) Br b) I -1
c) I d) F
55. In its chemical properties, calcium is most similar to
a) Cs b) Cu
c) Sc d) Sr
56. Which two of the following are iso electronic with one another?
a) Na+ and O b) Na+ and K+
c) Na+ and Ne d) Ne and O
57. Which of the following is a transuranic element?
a) Americium b) Plutonium
c) Neptunium d) All of these
58. The hydrogen, which is present in the atmosphere of sun and stars in a large amount, is
a) H2 b) H
c) H+ d) H-
59. Cesium and Francium are liquids above
a) 10oC b) 15oC
c) 20oC d) 30oC
60. In an aqueous solution the hydrides of alkali metals are
a) Stable b) Unstable
c) No change d) None of these
61. As the atomic number of the halogen increases, the halogens
Lose their outermost electrons less easily
Become less dense
Becomes lighter in color
Gain electrons less easily
62. The electron affinity of fluorine is
a) 348.8 kj/mol b) 337 kj/mol
c) 337 kj/mol d) 348.8 kj/mol
63. Which ionic halides have high m.p and b.p?
a) Fluoride b) Chloride
c) Bromide d) Iodide
64. Which gas is used in the making of tungsten bulb filaments?
a) H2 b) N2
c) O2 d) CO2
65. The ionic halides in order of decreasing m.p and b.p can be arranges as
Iodide>bromide>chloride> fluoride
Bromide>chloride>fluoride>iodide
Chloride>bromide>iodide>fluoride
Fluoride>chloride>bromide>iodide
66. A hydride ion and helium atom has same number of
a) Protons b) Neutrons
c) Electrons d) All of these
67. Ionic hydrides are also called
a) Saline hydrides b) Salt like hydrides
c) Both a & b d) None of these
68. The hydrides are acts as powerful reducing agents are
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Interstitial d) Complex
69. The hydrides which are non stoichiometric in nature are
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Interstitial d) Complex
70. Which one is the example of complex hydride?
a) PH3 b) NaH
c) LaH3 d) NaBH4

Chemistry part 2 chap 1 mcqs.....file 3
71. The adsorption of hydrogen by platinum is known as
a) Hydrogenation b) Dehydrogenation
c) Occlusion d) Substitution
72. From left to right in a periodic table charge to mass ratio increases therefore the hydration energy
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Remains constant d) None of these
73. ______ elements have been discovered so
far.
a) 100 b) 110
c) 120 d) 150
74. _______ classified the then known elements
into metals, non metals and their derivatives.
a) Dobreiner b) Al Razi
c) Newlands d) Mendeleeve
75. Dobreiners work led to the law of triads which states that ______
a) Atomic weight of any one element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of triad.
b) Atomic weight of the middle element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
c) Atomic number of any one element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
d) Atomic number of the middle element was
found t be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
76. The law of octaves was given by _______
a) Dobreiner b) Al Razi
c) Newlands d) None of these
77. Law of octave states that ______
a) The properties of every 6th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
b) The properties of every 9th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
c) The properties of every 8th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
d) The properties of every 7th element from the
given one were similar to the second.
78. Mendeleevs Periodic Table was based on _______
a) Atomic number b) Atomic mass
c) Atomic volume d) Electronic configuration
79. Moseleys work led to the periodic law, which
states that _______
a) The number of the electrons in the 1st
energy level increases as the atomic
number increases.
b) The properties of the elements are a
periodic function of their atomic mass.
c) The x rays spectra of the elements are
more complex than the optical spectra.
d) The properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic number.
80. A pair of elements in the same family in the
periodic table classification is ________
a) Chlorine and carbon
b) Calcium and aluminum
c) Nitrogen and neon
d) Sodium and potassium
81. In the period, the elements are arranged in
strict sequence in order of _______
a) Increasing charges in the nucleus.
b) Increasing atomic weights.
c) Increasing number of electrons in valence
shell.
d) Increasing valency.
82. Uranium is a member of
a) s block b) p block
c) d block d) f block
83. How many ionization energies can carbon
have?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 6
84. Which ion has the maximum polarization
power?
a) L+ b) Mg 2+
c) Al 3+ d) O 2-
85. Which of the following halides is not oxidized
by MnO2?
a) F b) Cl-
c) Br d) I
86. The process requiring absorption of energy is
a) F → F b) Cl → Cl
c) O → O2 d) H → H
87. Most of the known elements are metals of
______ of periodic table.
a) D – block b) P – block
c) III – group d) Zero block
88. The volume in cubic centimeters occupied by
one gram atom of the element is called
______
a) Atomic volume b) Atomic weight
c) Mass number d) None
89. The lowest ionization energies are found in the
_______
a) Inert gases b) Alkali metals
c) Transition elements d) Halogens
90. The unit of ionization energy is _______
a) Joule b) Calorie
c) Electron volt d) None
91. The electropositive elements form _____
a) Acidic oxides b) Basic oxides
c) Neutral oxides d) Amphoteric oxide
92. The electronegative elements form _____
a) Acidic oxides b) Basic oxides
c) Neutral oxides d) Amphoteric oxide
93. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than
oxygen because of _______
a) More attraction of electrons by the nucleus
b) More penetration effect
c) The extra stability of half filled p orbital
d) The size of nitrogen atom is smaller.
94. _______ ion has the largest radius.
a) Al+3 b) Cl-1
c) F-1 d) O-2
95. Ionic hydrides are usually _______
a) Liquids at room temperature
b) Good reducing agents
c) Good electrical conductors in solid state
d) Easily reduced.
96. The hydronium ion is a/an _______
a) Ion with formula H2O+
b) Ion with the formula H3O+
c) Free radical rather than an ion
d) Ion formed by removal of H- form a water
molecule.
97. When steam is passed over red hot coke at
1000oC, a mixture of carbon monoxide and
hydrogen gas is produced. It is known as
______
a) Heavy water b) Water gas
c) Phosgen gas d) None

How Fat is Lost from Body

When you lose weight, where does it go? Turns out, most of it is exhaled.
In a new study, scientists explain the fate of fat in a human body, and through precise calculations, debunk some common misconceptions. Fat doesn't simply "turn into" energy or heat, and it doesn't break into smaller parts and get excreted, the researchers say.
In reality, the body stores the excess protein or carbs in a person's diet in form of fat, specifically, as triglyceride molecue, which consist of just three kinds of atoms: carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. For people to lose weight, their triglycerides must break up into building blocks, which happens in a process known as oxidation.


When a triglyceride is oxidized (or "burned up"), the process consumes many molecules of oxygen while producing carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) as waste products.

So, for example, to burn 10 kilograms (22 lbs.) of fat, a person needs to inhale 29 kg (64 lbs.) of oxygen. And the chemical process of burning that fat will produce 28 kg (62 lbs.) of carbon dioxide and 11 kg (24 lbs.) of water, the researchers calculated.
"None of this biochemistry is new, but for unknown reasons it seems nobody has thought of performing these calculations before," study authors Ruben Meerman and Andrew Brown of the University of New South Wales in Australia, said. "The quantities make perfect sense but we were surprised by the numbers that popped out."
The researchers showed that during weight loss, 84 percent of the fat that is lost turns into carbon dioxide and leaves the body through the lungs, whereas the remaining 16 percent becomes water, according to the study published today (Dec. 16) in a special Christmas issue of medical reports

"These results show that the lungs are the primary excretory organ for weight loss. The water formed may be excreted in the urine, feces, sweat, breath, tears or other bodily fluids, and is readily replenished," the researchers said.
The calculations also show the frightening power of, for example, a small muffin over an hour of exercise: At rest, a person who weighs 154 pounds (70 kg) exhales just 8.9 mg of carbon with each breath. Even after an entire day, if this person only sits, sleeps, and does light activities, he or she exhales about 200 grams of carbon, the researchers calculated.
A 100 g muffin can cover 20 percent of what was lost.
On the other hand, replacing one hour of rest with exercise such as jogging, removes an additional 40 g of carbon from the body, the researchers said.
Even if one traces the fates of all the atoms in the body, the secret to weight loss remains the same: In order to lose weight, one needs to either eat less carbon or excercise more to remove carbon from the body.

FSc Notes Biology Part 2 Chapter 16 Support and Movements Short Questions

Q 1. What does growth ring indicates?
Ans. Since one growth ring is formed in one year, a count of the rings at the base of trunk indicates the age of trees at the time it was cut.

Q 2. What is the function of heart wood?
Ans. In most species the heartwood accumulates a variety of chemicals such as resins, oils, gums and tannins. These provide a resistance to decay and insect attack for example in red cedar and conifers.

Q 3. What are sleep movements?
Ans. Bean plants and some members of legume family lower their leaves in the evening and raise them in the morning. These are known as sleep movements.

Q 4. What is Nyctinasty?
Ans. The nyctinastic movements are shown by the organs in response to external stimuli leading to differential growth. These are due to turgor and growth changes.

Q 5. What is cartilage?
Ans. Cartilage is much softer than bone. It is a form of connective tissue. It covers ends of the bone at the joint, and also support the flexible portion of nose and external ears. No blood vessels penetrate into cartilage.

Q 6. In how many categories joints are classified? Name them.
Ans. Joints are classified on the basis of the amount of movements allowed by them, into three categories:

1. Immovable joints
2. Slightly movable joints
3. Freely movable joints

Q 7. What is sciatica?
Ans. It is characterized by stabbing pain radiating over the course of sciatic nerve results due to injury of proximal sciatic nerve, which might follow a fall, a herniated disc or improper administration of an injection into the buttock.

Q 8. How many steps are involved in repairing of broken bones? Name them.
Ans. The repair process of a simple fracture takes place in four phases:

1. Haematoma formation
2. Callus formation
3. Bony callus formation
4. Remodelling

Q 9. Why heart muscles are known as cardiac muscles?
Ans. Cardiac muscles are actually the muscles of heart. They constitute most of the mass of the heart walls. These muscles are also striated and involuntary. Therefore, heart muscles are known as cardiac muscles.

Q 10. What are digitigrades?
Ans. The mammals which tend to walk on their digits only are called digitigrades. They run faster than plantigrade animals e.g., rabbit, rodents etc.

Q 11. What are cross bridges?
Ans. The heads of myosin are called cross bridges which make links with actin during muscles contraction.

Q 12. What do you understand from "Rigor Mortis"?
Ans. After death, the amount of ATP in the body falls, Under these circumstances the bridges cannot be broken and so they remain firmly bound. This results in the body becoming stiff, a condition known as Rigor Mortis.

Q 13. Define sacromere.
Ans. A sacromere is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z-lines and is the smallest contractile unit of muscle fibre.

Q 14. What are chondrocytes?
Ans. The living cells of cartilage are called chondrocytes. These cells secrete flexible, elastic, non-living matrix collagen that surrounds the chondrocytes.

Q 15. What is spondylosis?
Ans. It is the disease, which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joint.

Q 16. What is hydro-skeleton or hydro-static skeleton?
Ans. Animals may have a fluid filled gastrovascular cavity or coelom which can act as hydro-skeleton or hydro-static skeleton. Hydro-static skeleton provides support and resistance to the contraction of muscles so that motility results.

Q 17. What is the hyaline cartilage?
Ans. It is the most abundant type of cartilage in human body. It is found at the movable joints.

Q 18. What provides support in plants and animals?
Ans. The collenchymatous cells in plants give support to the baby plants and sclerenchymatous cells to the adult plants. In animals muscles, cartilage and bones provide support.

Q 19. What is turgor pressure?
Ans. The living cells of epidermis, cortex and pith take in water by osmosis. An internal hydrostatic pressure called turgor pressure develops, which keeps them rigid, resistant to bending and maintain the turgidity.

Q 20. What is Bundle cap?
Ans. In the stem of some plants, for example, sunflower, the vascular bundles are strengthened by additional sclerenchyma fibers, which form bundle cap.

Q 21. What is tonoplast?
Ans. The membrane that bounds vacuole is called tonoplast which contains a number of active transport systems that pump ions into the vacuoles.

Q 22. What are fibers or tracheids?
Ans. These are long and cylindrical and they may exist in solid bundles in xylem or as bundle caps.

Q 23. What are sclereids?
Ans. These are shorter than fibers and are found in seed coats and nutshells and provide protection.

Q 24. What are vessels or trachea?
Ans. Long tubular structures, join end to end to form long water conducting pipe in xylem.

Q 25. Define secondary growth?
Ans. Growth due to lateral meristem or cambium is called secondary growth.
Or
An increase in plant growth due to the activity of vascular cambium is called secondary growth.
The result of secondary growth is most evident in woody, perennial plants like trees, shrubs and vine.
`
Q 26. Which meristems are involved in secondary growth?
Ans. Secondary growth occurs due to cell division in:

• Vascular cambium
• Cork cambium

Q 27. What is sapwood and heartwood?
Ans. As trees grow older only few annual growth rings are active in conduction at one time. The active portion is called sapwood. The inactive non-conducting wood is called heartwood.

Q 28. What is callus or wood tissue?
Ans. An important function of the cambium is to form callus or wood tissue on or over the wound. Soft parenchymatous tissues are rapidly formed on or below the damaged surface of stems and roots. The callus unites the branches during budding and grafting.

Q 29. What is difference between animal and plant movements?
Ans. Animals move in response to external stimuli by motion, similarly plants also show movements. Animals change their location in response to stimulus. Plants are fixed therefore they change their growth pattern.

Q 30. What are main types of movements in plants?
Ans. There are two types of movements:
Autonomic movements
Growth movements

Q 31. What are autonomic movements. Also give their main types.
Ans. Autonomic movements are spontaneous movements due to internal causes. Autonomic movements are of three types:

1. Tactic movements
2. Turgor movements
3. Growth movements

Q 32. Define tactic movements.
Ans. These are the movements of an entire cell or organism i.e. locomotion due to external stimulus. The tactic movements may be positive if it is towards the stimulus or negative if it is away from the stimulus.

Q 33. What is phototactic movement?
Ans. It is a movement in response to stimulus of light. The best example of positive tactic movements is the passive movements of chloroplast due to cyclosis. This movement helps the chloroplast to absorb maximum light for CO2 fixation.

Q 34. What is chemotactic movement.
Ans. The movements in response to stimulus of chemicals is called chemotactic movements. The movements shown by sperms of liver-worts, mosses, ferns towards archegonia in response to stimulus of nucleic acid released by the ovum are such examples.

Q 35. What is turgor movements?
Ans. Turgor movements is due to differential changes in turgor and size of cells a result of gain or loss of water. Rapid movements of leaflets in " touch me not" plant and sleep movements of the plants fall under this category of movements.

Q 36. What are growth movements?
Ans. Growth movements are due to unequal growth on two sides of plants organs like stem, root, tendrils, buds etc.

Q 37. Define epinasty.
Ans. It is shown by leaves, petals etc. The upper surface of leaf in bud condition shows more growth as compared with the lower surface. This leads to opening of buds.

Q 38. Define hyponasty.
Ans. If growth in the lower surface of the leaf in bud condition is more than that of the upper surface than the bud will remain closed.

Q 39. Define nutation.
Ans. The growing tip of young stem moves in zig zag fashion due to alternate changes in growth on opposite side of the apex. This mode of growth is called nutation.

Q 40. What are tropic movements?
Ans. It is the movement in curvature of whole organ towards or away from stimuli such as light, gravity and touch.

Q 41. Define phototropism.
Ans. It is the movement of part of the plant in response to stimulus of light and is caused due to differential growth of a plant part like stem or root.

Q 42. Define thigmotropism.
Ans. It is the movement in response to stimulus of touch, for example climbing vines. When they come in contact with some solid object, the growth on the opposite side of contact increases and the tendril coils around the support.

Q 43. Define chemotropism.
Ans. The movement in response to some chemicals is called chemotropism. The hyphae of fungi are chemotropic.

Q 44. Define hydrotropism.
Ans. The movement of plant parts in response to stimulus of water is called hydrotropism. Roots show positive hydrotropism and shoots show negative hydrotropism.

Q 45. Define geotropism or gravitropism.
Ans. It is the response to gravity. Roots display positive geotropism and shoots show negative geotropism.

Q 46. What are nastic movements?
Ans. These are the non-directional movements of parts of plant in response to external stimuli.

Q 47. Define photonasty.
Ans. The principal stimulus is the photoperiod. Flowers, open and close due to light sensitivity.

Q 48. Define thermonasty.
Ans. It is due to temperature. The flowers of tulip close at night because of rapid growth in the lower side by upward and inward bending of the petals.

Q 49. Define haptonastic movements?
Ans. It occurs in response to contact e.g., the action of the Venus fly trap.

Q 50. What is skeleton?
Ans. The skeleton is tough and rigid framework of the body of animals which provides protection, shape and support to the body organs.

Q 51. What are different types of skeleton?
Ans. There are three main types of skeleton in animals:

1. Hydrostatic Skeleton
2. Exoskeleton
3. Endoskeleton

 

Q 52. Define exoskeleton.
Ans. An exoskeleton is hardened outer surface to which internal muscles can be attached.
 

Q 53. What is the composition of of exoskeleton?
Ans. It is composed of two layers. The epicuticle is the outermost layer and is made up of waxy lipoprotein. The bulb of exoskeleton is below the epicuticle and is called procuticle which is composed of chitin, tough, leathery, polysaccharide and several kinds of proteins.

Q 54. What is moulting or ecdysis?
Ans. When arthropods have to grow they need to shed exoskeleton periodically and replace it with one of the larger size. This process is known as Ecdysis or moulting.

Q 55. What is endoskeleton?
Ans. The skeleton that lies internally to the muscles is called endoskeleton. It provides support, shape, protection and locomotion.

Q 56. What is the composition of endoskeleton?
Ans. The endoskeleton is primarily made up of two types of tissues.

1. Bones
2. Cartilage

Both bones and cartilage are types of rigid connective tissue. Both consist of living cells embedded in the matrix of protein called collagen.

Q 57. What do you know about compact bone?
Ans. Compact bone is dense and strong and provides an attachment site for muscle.

Q 58. What are the  characteristics of spongy bone?
Ans. Spongy bone is light,rich in blood vessels, and highly porous. The cavities of spongy bone contain bone marrow where blood cells are formed.

Q 59. Name the cells associated with bone?
Ans. There are three types of cells associated with bone:

1. Bone forming cells (Osteoblasts)
2. Mature bone cells (Osteocytes)
3. Bone dissolving cells (Osteoclasts)

Q 60. What is fibro cartilage?
Ans. It has matrix containing bundles of collagen fibres. It forms an external pinnae of ear and epiglottis.

Q 61. What is axial skeleton?
Ans. The skeleton that includes the skull, the vertebrae, and the ribs and the sternum is called axial skeleton.

Q 62. Name the bones of cranium.
Ans. Parietal and temporal are paired bones, whereas frontal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid are unpaired bones.

Q 63. Name the bones of facial region?
Ans. The paired facial bones are maxilla, zygomatic, nasal, lacrimal, palatine and inferior concha. The unpaired facial bones are mandible and vomer.

Q 64. What is vertebral column?
Ans. Vertebral column extends from skull to the pelvis to form backbone, which protects the spinal cord. It consists of 33 vertebrae. The vertebrae are named according to their location in the body, viz, cervical, thoracic, lumbar and pelvic.

Q 65. What is sacrum?
Ans. Sacrum is formed by the fusion of anterior five vertebrae present in the pelvic region.

Q 66. What is coccyx?
Ans. Coccyx is formed by the fusion of four posterior vertebrae present in the pelvic region.

Q 67. Why lower two pairs of ribs are called "floating ribs"?
Ans. The lower two pairs of ribs are called floating ribs because they do not attach with the sternum.

Q 68. What is appendicular skeleton?
Ans. The skeleton that consists of pectoral girdle and appendages(fore limbs) and pelvic girdle and appendages(hind limbs) is called appendicular skeleton.

Q 69. What does pectoral girdle comprise?
Ans. Pectoral girdle attaches the arms to the trunk. It comprises scapula, supra-scapula and clavicle. The clavicle connects scapula with sternum.

Q 70. Name different bones of fore limb.
Ans. The fore limb consists of humerus, radius, ulna, 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.

Q 71. What are important features of pelvic girdle?
Ans. Pelvic girdle attaches the hind limb to the vertebral column. It consists of two coxal bones. Each is formed by the fusion of three bones ilium, ischium and pubis.

Q 72. Name different parts of hind limb.
Ans. The hind limb consists of one femur, 2 tibia + fibula, 8 tarsals, 5 metatarsals and 14 phalanges.

Q 73. What different classes of joints on the basis of structure?
Ans. Joints are also classified on the basis of structure:

1. Fibrous Joints
2. Cartilaginous Joints
3. Synovial Joints

Q 74. What are hinge joints?
Ans. The joint that allows the movements in two directions is called hinge joint. These are at elbow and knee.

Q 75. What are ball & socket joints?
Ans. These joints allow movement in several directions. Such joints have at least two pairs of muscles present perpendicular to each other. Hip joint and shoulder joint are the examples of ball and socket joints.

Q 76. What is cleft palate?
Ans. Cleft palate is a condition in which palatine processes of maxilla and palatine fail to fuse.

Q 77. What is arthritis?
Ans. Arthritis covers over 100 different types of inflammatory or degenerative diseases that damage the joints. It results in pain, stiffness, of the joints. Friction is increased.

Q 78. What is osteoporosis?
Ans. Osteoporosis is a condition of brittle and fragile bones. In this case bone mass is reduced and chemical composition of the matrix remains normal. Osteoporosis mostly occurs in aged women, which have decreased oestrogen level.

Q 79. What is osteomalcia?
Ans. Osteomalcia (soft bone) includes a number of disorders in which the bone receive inadequate minerals. In this disease calcium salts are not deposited and hence bones soften and weaken. Weight bearing bones of legs and pelvis bend and deform.

Q 80. What is rickets?
Ans. Rickets is a disease in children with bowed legs and deformed pelvis. It is caused by deficiency of calcium in diet or vitamin D deficiency.

Q 81. What is disc-slip?
Ans. Severe or sudden physical trauma to spines fro example from bending forward while lifting a heavy object may result in herniation of one or more disc. The herniated or slipped disc usually involves rupture of annulus fibrosus followed by protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposus.

Q 82. What is closed reduction?
Ans. In closed reduction the bone end is coaxed back to their normal position by physician's hand.

Q 83. What  is open reduction?
Ans. In open reduction surgery is performed and the bone ends are secured together with pins or wires.

Q 84. What are muscles?
Ans. Many multicellular animals have evolved specialized cells muscles fro movement. They contain numerous filaments of special proteins, actin and myosin.

Q 85. Name different types of muscles in vertebrates.
Ans. The vertebrates possess three kinds of muscles:

1. Smooth muscles
2. Skeletal muscles
3. Cardiac muscles

Q 86. What are smooth muscles?
Ans. Smooth muscles are long and spindle shaped with each containing a single nucleus. It has no striations. It is not under the voluntary control. These muscles are found in the blood vessels, digestive tract and many other organs.

Q 87. What are cardiac muscles?
Ans. These are muscles of the heart. Heart muscles is composed of chains of single cell, each with its own nucleus. The chain of cells is organized into fibres that are branched and interconnected. The cardiac muscles are striated an involuntary.

Q 88. What are skeletal muscles?
Ans. The muscles that are attached with the skeleton and associated with the movement of bones are called skeletal muscles. The skeletal muscles are voluntary and striated.

Q 89. What are tendons?
Ans. Generally each end of entire skeleton muscle is attached to bone by a bundle of collagen, non-elastic fibres known as tendons.

Q 90. What is muscle fibre?
Ans. Each muscle consists of muscle bundles, which are further composed of fibres or cells. Each muscle fibre is long cylindrical cell with multiple oval nuclei arranged just beneath its sarcolemma. Their diameter is 10-100 micro meter.

Q 91. What is sarcolemma and sarcoplasm?
Ans. The cell membrane of muscle cell is called sarcolemma while its cytoplasm is called sarcoplasm.

Q 92. What are myofibrils?
Ans. When viewed in high magnification, each muscles fibre is seen to contain a large number of myofibrils, 1-2 mm in diameter, that run in parallel fashion and extend the entire length of the cell.

Q 93. What are dark and light bands in sarcoplasm?
Ans. The dark bands are called A band because they are anisotropic that is they can polarize visible light. The light bands are called I band are isotropic or non-polarizing.

Q 94. What are H-zone and M-line in A band of sarcomere?
Ans. Each A band has a lighter stripe in its midsection called H-zone (H stands for hele means bright). The H-zone is bisected by dark line called M-line.

Q 95. What is T-system?
Ans. The sarcolemma of muscle fibre cell penetrates deep into the cell to form hollow elongated tube, the transverse tubule or T-tubule. The thousands of T-tubules of each muscle cell are collectively called T-system.

Q 96. What are triads?
Ans. The T-tubule and terminal portion of the adjacent envelope of sarcoplasmic reticulum form triads at regular interval along the length of the myofibril.

Q 97. What is sliding filament model?
Ans. According to this model the thin filament slide past the thick one's so that actin and myosin filaments overlap to greater degree.

Q 98. What is a motor unit?
Ans. All the fibres innervated by a single motor neuron are a Motor Unit and contract simultaneously in response to the action potential fired by the motor neurons.

Q 99. What is other sources of energy for muscle contraction in addition to glucose?
Ans. When more energy is required due to high metabolism, it is provided by another energy storing substances called creatine phosphate.

Q 100. What is muscle fatigue?
Ans. Muscle fatigue is a state of physiological inability to contract. Muscle fatigue results from relative deficit of ATP. Excess accumulation of lactic acid and ionic imbalances also contribute to muscle fatigue.

Q 101. What is tetany?
Ans. Tetany is the disease caused by low calcium in the blood. It increases the excitability of neurons in loss of sensations. Muscle twitches and convulsion occur.

Q 102. What is cramp?
Ans. It is also known as tetanic contraction of entire muscle. It lasts for just few seconds or several hours, causing the muscles to become stretched and painful. It is most common in thigh and hip muscles.

Q 103. What are different parts of skeletal muscle?
Ans. Skeletal muscles has three parts:

1. Origin
2. Insertion
3. Belly

Q 104. What are ligaments and tendons?
Ans. Ligaments attach bone to bone and are slightly elastic and tendons attach muscles to bones and are non-elastic.

Q 105. What are antagonistic arrangement?
Ans. At joint the muscles work against each other by contraction. This relationship is called antagonistic arrangement.

Q 106. What are brachialis & brachioradialis?
Ans. These muscles lie below the biceps brachii. The brachialis is inserted in the ulna, while brachioradialis is inserted in the radius. When these muscles contract the lift ulna and radius and bend the arm at the elbow.

Q 107. What are organs of locomotion in euglena, paramecium and amoeba?
Ans. Euglena moves with the help of flagellum. Paramecium moves with the help of cilia. Amoeba moves by means of pseudopodia.

Q 108. What is effective stroke?
Ans. Five out of nine double fibrils contract or slide simultaneously, cilia bend or shorten. It is called effective stroke.

Q 109. What is recovery stroke?
Ans. The four out of nine double fibril contract and cilia become straight. It is called recovery stroke.

Q 110. What is the type of locomotion in jellyfish and earthworm.
Ans. Jelly fish moves by jet propulsion. Earthworm shows accordion-like movement, in which setae and muscles both are involved.

Q 111. What is mode of locomotion in cockroach?
Ans. The mode of locomotion in cockroach is swift walking but it also takes to flight by its wings.

Q 112. How locomotion occurs in snail and mussels?
Ans. Snails and mussels are mollusks, which crawl or move very slowly by foot.

Q 113. What are tube feet?
Ans. Tube feet are organs of locomotion in starfish.

Q 114. What is swim bladder?
Ans. Buoyancy in the water is maintained by a specialized structure in bony fish called swim bladder.

Q 115. How wriggling occurs in amphibians?
Ans. Amphibians wriggle along the belly on the ground, with the help of segmentally arranged muscles as it swims on land with legs hardly touching the ground when moving deliberately.

Q 116. What is bipedal locomotion?
Ans. Bipedal means that animals walked on hind limbs. Bipedal locomotion freed the front appendages, which become adapted for prey capture or flight in some animals.

Q 117. What is passive flight?
Ans. When birds glide, the wings act as aerofoil. An aerofoil is any smooth surface which moves through the air at an angle to the air stream. The air flows over the wing in such a way that the bird is given lift.

Q 118. What is active flight?
Ans. When little or no support can be gained from the upward air currents, the same effect can be achieved by flapping the wings and is called active flight.

Q 119. What is plantigrade?
Ans. In this mode of locomotion the mammals used to walk on their soles with palm, wrist, and digits all lending to rest more or less on ground, such as monkeys, apes, man and bear etc.

Q 120. What is unguligrade?
Ans. The mammals walk on the tips of toes modified into hoof such as deer, goat. It is the swiftest type of locomotion.

Q 121. What is the cause of muscle cramp?
Ans. It is caused by:

1. Low blood sugar
2. Electrolytic dapletion
3. Dehydration
4. Irritability of spinal cord and neurons.